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I know this is extremely unlikely, but if 2 drivers finish with exactly the same time (ie to the nearest 1/100000th of a second), how do the FIA decide who wins? Unless they share it??
 
I know this is extremely unlikely, but if 2 drivers finish with exactly the same time (ie to the nearest 1/100000th of a second), how do the FIA decide who wins? Unless they share it??

In the Race? not sure, only precedent i have Is 125cc race (infact it was 0.001 but due to margin of error it was counted as a "dead heat") It went to photo finish, like in horse racing, and if a winner cannot be determined then. it goes to the guy with the fastest lap.

Wheather thats counts in F1 i do not know (cannot find it in the FIA rules hand book)
 
A question on DRS:

If a driver is within one second behind his opponent at the DRS detection line, but he manages to overtake the opponent before the DRS activation line, is he still allowed to use DRS after the activation line?
 
Yeah, they can still activate it even if they have already overtaken the car in front.
Likewise, they can activate it even if they are more than one second behind their opponent but were within the one second window at the activation line.
 
Good question, zombieman. I believe so. The DRS is enabled via a signal transmitted from race control to a sensor in the car controlling the DRS. Once the system is enabled the driver activates it and it is only disengaged on the next application of the brakes. There is nothing in the technical regulations to forbid the use of the DRS in the scenario that you describe. In theory the signal to enable the system could be countermanded from race control but I'm not sure it's set up to do that.

Consider the scenario in which a driver is about to be passed in a battle for position. When there are no other cars in play he cannot activate his DRS to defend the attack, yet if he is within a second of a back marker his DRS will be enabled. On reaching the activation line he can deploy the DRS to lap the backmarker and in the process use the DRS in a defensive way to hold off his attacker. However, this is an unintended consequence of implementing the DRS as an overtaking aid for drivers and, in theory, not in the spirit of the rules. Since the system is enabled by electronic sensors, not by Charlie Whiting or other human intervention, they can't actually stop drivers using it to lap people.

I suspect that the same difficulty would apply to the other situation as well although I stand to be corrected if anyone has a better take on it.

Edit: Slow typing again .. Sly and Josh get in there before me! I'll leave it in anyway.
 
I know this is extremely unlikely, but if 2 drivers finish with exactly the same time (ie to the nearest 1/100000th of a second), how do the FIA decide who wins? Unless they share it??

The 1967 Syracuse Grand Prix was tied between Parked and Scafalotti. This is the only instance of a tie happening in formula one.

I should add that they both came in first place, both were Ferrari drivers.
 
I don't know if this has been asked before, but it really does irritate me.

Why was the "Luxemburg Grand Prix" held in Germany?

Ah, this was a case of in 1997 there already being a German GP (At the Hockenheimring), a European GP (At Jerez) - and the Jerez promoters owned the title - and despite the fact that the event wasn't held in 1998, they refused the Nurburgring the right to to use the European GP title.....

Still, it could be worse - they could have called it the Swiss GP - or held the San Marino GP in Italy!
 
Sorry. Okay (probably) regarding the event, but in fact well into the 1920's (and for some events much later) it was a requirement to have an on-board mechanic. Comte Albert de Dion, having completed the race in 6hrs 48m, was disqualified because he was not accompanied by a mechanic. The victory was handed to Albert Lemaître who completed the race in 6hrs 51m.
 
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