Discussion in 'Drivers' started by Josh, Aug 26, 2014.
Do the rules stipulate that there can only be one person in the car?
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Think of the precedent this sets. Someone has actually decreed that a Formula 1 contract really means something!
Sauber don't have any money! Thats why they signed two other drivers in the first place. Paying him off could be the difference between the team making it through the season and doing a Caterham.
Surely though an F1 driving contract has a clause in about the team being able to drop a driver if he's not good enough though right? Couldn't they just run him for one session and drop him for being slow?
That would be a bizarre and distracting interlude.
If he had a contract then Sauber should honour it or come to some sort of agreement with him.
If there was no contracts, drivers could go self employed renting their services to teams on a race by race basis.
Back to the days of team hopping like Fangio used to do.
teabagyokel. I would have thought that, given Sauber is a Swiss registered company he would have had to have taken the case to a court there.
There is one precedent that I can think of which is when Lotus tried to get the ban on the Lotus 88 running. They lodged their case in the US after the car was black flagged from free practice at Long Beach. The US Courts rule the car legal and that it should run. (the courts decision was announced after the race). FISA stated that the ruling only applied to races on US soil as that was the jurisdiction of the court. So, based on that case, VDG would have to take the case to each national court.
Would be acceptable that Sauber just give him runs in the practice sessions .. there is no stipulation that he must be one of the drivers on race day
More speculation, and one that I never thought about.
The weird situation is he is bringing the money in rather than being paid by Sauber which would make it straight forward case of simply paying off
but how do find you Sauber liable if he is not on their payroll and bringing in money?
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